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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)+ m7 R; f( C" u2 R. c: T' A
% U/ D3 m5 p# G+ UProof:
1 ]2 P/ s$ z; y' Q* C( ~+ l: WLet n >1 be an integer
5 [: m2 A7 n: Q, w8 U; H3 |Basis: (n=2)# y6 V) @+ L. u$ r( L
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 38 s9 q6 {+ V9 a2 m O0 B) O, \
7 a. R6 h+ S# N u! q% MInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that1 O3 Z! V h# ]) i1 d7 W
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
0 [4 ?. y5 O+ K7 w; e4 k( {# B1 X, H
Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
! U9 ~2 \1 U1 g# X# Q3 H0 Tsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
% b' z. z" G* O# uThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1), n0 H3 Y/ F# q
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K0 L$ T P; g! A7 l# R6 N
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)2 Q$ d. e9 l- w7 ]% s9 N
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
# g( v( K1 p# [+ v, m3 o* dby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
; P- ~6 g g" B; m; o% TSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
) T" L) n; W, n6 B& U = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
+ S0 L# J6 @1 Y9 ?' K' A* B0 A2 Y = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
/ A7 V0 m5 s( `1 V* S/ y) ^7 b( b5 E v9 m# }
Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.- Y6 M! d* {) m# y
0 b/ X- T U6 L9 J0 ?" D9 r[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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