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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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Proof: % ]9 z, A U4 E. x3 M& @2 O1 c
Let n >1 be an integer
3 g5 m8 X% ?5 K2 B9 k* M9 J" H- GBasis: (n=2), C( y; f$ R! _* @, d/ O* T1 ~6 o7 m
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3* l) ~ u! [( I; D8 b% f
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that, A) Z# ~6 W. Y! E
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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0 Y& Q& a5 Y$ J+ i4 LNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
8 z5 Y/ A2 o4 M# B% e3 v# s. |since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem( s, t$ a# C2 G9 ]2 s
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)" Z. p6 K- O& ?( f) g" j, Q5 ]# k
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K& O& ?+ _ t. x- s
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
d1 L! p+ C# i! y3 O = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
, s9 u3 B7 E: B# |: R+ W4 ^& A' ]by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0 D$ g& ?$ b$ Y+ W: D- C
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)' y* _8 U, V" b2 E, T
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
) R5 ~% k0 P a1 W( L! G, A = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 32 l" ^! I3 d! b1 W/ u! o3 y
5 Z# w. P, B% B/ r& w0 vConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.8 W; f, o5 O. z8 ? U
- F8 a8 i; W( P+ a! V; H9 ^[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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