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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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Proof: $ k% B% Y5 _3 d/ g4 {, e# {" g9 ?! Q
Let n >1 be an integer : Z: z& G( y% _$ N: v2 u3 E4 F" B
Basis: (n=2)5 |: J: G! }- `+ z- e
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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# u8 u* s3 |8 O' \Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
$ o H: M8 j% ], B! d/ a5 L' x- K K^3 – K can by divided by 3.+ O- t/ l# Q1 x. @
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 37 }2 X/ j( V+ O0 O7 t+ |
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
* G$ h* y$ _% Q8 s1 ~& I' yThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
' u2 ] _; k% U/ J, I = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K& d7 R7 h+ Y0 h* v. o$ d2 ?. N3 n/ E
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
# ]0 H! J+ X6 k V. {' G5 W = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
9 U6 e h/ Q: e) A B/ a$ x1 Aby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0) S, e( W* b8 l! [3 Z
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)9 L" h# k3 S3 S9 G# N/ h
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
1 Q7 W5 q% R' k4 f = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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. n- b- P& Q3 t3 Z2 H+ D" s[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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