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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)% _ O8 @; g- j; B' `
+ s/ Q- r8 Z/ H H' aProof:
) O2 ]6 R# W! K. }Let n >1 be an integer ! e H, k1 m) n; r( k
Basis: (n=2)
: S" P7 Q5 F+ z1 S; s; ^& @2 m9 _ 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3+ X, L4 A+ F9 A: H( ^0 [" r
3 l5 Z' M6 X9 R$ ]Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
# e7 m7 W8 n( Y+ i7 J/ e3 t K^3 – K can by divided by 3./ g, s# F' S; k& `5 ]
3 E( B- @3 e, T9 _
Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
% E9 s9 o0 p) H- g6 L' w6 Wsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem, T9 F* }5 t3 G R* z4 z& N0 O
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
" \/ n6 s5 q6 P# t% ~ = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
+ o9 Y& R' D, q9 W = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
. l/ z* q4 z8 D& k = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
# O) B- N! Y2 ^& W: Sby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
* H+ z: J9 Z; iSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
( d2 i& a3 N: G& T4 Z) d = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K); U: t+ C- p3 r( D3 a
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 35 B n( O2 B+ ?: Z& T
! w ]( e# j% |, v# uConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
6 h; k/ t" W/ V4 n3 O6 L& r" ^' r! @3 q, h0 R
[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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