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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n). p* D \+ W" i( U H4 }
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Proof: # h" c/ r2 J$ s* ^9 B* G
Let n >1 be an integer
/ H2 }! g- q. Y& W/ ^0 CBasis: (n=2)
* O* i! b3 a- e6 o, } 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3& x- L, t/ T8 P2 H1 t2 ?
4 M% |0 V5 E5 d- @) ^3 r* jInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that% d9 g( b/ K& L$ w" C9 n
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
! ?1 \* P2 Q; P' b; Lsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem5 N; t- O- Q% d G: \
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
* O; h8 g8 @4 n6 c/ J- z- ] = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K- a+ i/ b* k& @' q0 K
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
$ J4 Y3 R8 q E = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)2 F/ [, C; ]6 I0 H$ q
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
. S# |! O7 f) x# R5 d6 a3 J8 K( {( {& @So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)' f& E; m6 N8 u# }, ]7 f
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
0 y) D) M+ G" s a = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3" y' F+ V/ |/ W" k" t# c3 Y% L
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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