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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)- v; T& M1 H% h s( \0 P! j1 }
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Proof: ' U' ~. }, ` L* g( k. o1 W. v
Let n >1 be an integer / f9 x, s) t/ i o8 R) m
Basis: (n=2)
; b* V! V$ r' v: E& e4 c 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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/ }) w% L2 W) c' c" V7 J) ?Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
4 f4 {, {3 R( K K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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( Q2 g8 y B; Y0 L" gNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3/ L0 v1 v- d) A0 Q1 i
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem P2 R9 d7 c' D4 {3 m
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
; ^$ Y0 _8 k/ f6 Z! c& V/ `* M = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
0 U. G. L! r/ ^8 c: ~* c = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
2 x0 Y! l3 I: Q7 c& ^7 r! M k = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
% [+ @$ B8 K- V; X( ?9 ^by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
/ ^3 L* h! i5 H4 d- g i2 W2 O' n5 i* ^So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)1 D" ~6 o0 w# K$ N% }
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
- C6 Q% @" D( x = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3! U4 G& n: t+ s
1 k7 D( b: t" `6 T: F; y6 _Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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