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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)4 t3 z! |9 j0 V5 u" }
! U+ c' Q/ ~0 s; O9 @Proof: " ]$ J7 E* A k" A$ K, m
Let n >1 be an integer + N* m2 ~( ?. P
Basis: (n=2)' ~1 R s: W# E
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3# f6 @7 u9 h1 ?
+ c( H$ }: C$ N9 Q3 Y* U
Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
% O0 _1 _$ w- n s% ~) \! |0 f K^3 – K can by divided by 3.6 x) ~. u5 `6 U* R. a6 j
. w4 k8 A3 Y) d U# a* d
Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
0 L, S& p( j- N1 }since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem7 x) E( W. G: [
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
$ m& U% r; C7 r: g. f+ b- p# u2 X0 \ = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K t8 j' ]- k! P
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
( m8 b, ?% [+ I' Q1 I = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
5 }; x% J3 V4 s4 \/ J: }by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>00 [3 t2 x4 H% ]6 b% Q
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
) }3 r& p( N) ?: ]' Q2 o' V$ D = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)4 q: d/ v% S, ~4 {! v: l2 f
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 39 m8 B& ?. D1 `9 J
2 Z" I- T9 x% o2 TConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.& d) X: d- C2 B' L" ?# K
/ A a& Y- \8 b4 O# H) n[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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