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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)$ o( f- M H) B$ k h- G
) R* ]# h, J/ F9 XProof: 1 I/ _ K, X6 Q3 s4 [( V. Q8 `
Let n >1 be an integer
% f7 c& s1 u0 p% L3 ?5 K* TBasis: (n=2)$ d5 @* {2 }9 }! E" }
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 34 q. b1 j7 p3 ?- P1 C1 b
- z2 O( @ `8 {2 Z
Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that' I: M. E1 C1 M n8 b( Q
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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1 ~1 j# |# _0 o+ VNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
0 k2 X) n+ b2 k1 N$ gsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem6 M5 E; J1 K, b3 F: n1 l
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)9 C8 X. j$ P1 B
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
8 L" M0 ~+ q6 `. k1 P = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)- `1 S/ T$ F0 o& N( G2 P
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)5 ^& V% C; ]' I& Q
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0% b4 O4 L8 O6 }$ Y$ d
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
6 j+ ]6 a q( T9 k1 V/ S# Z$ w) O = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
8 D N: z, S+ t" t. Q = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
8 o, `, Q4 q/ P# T5 }9 ~, o: C( m
/ C" y; M! N6 V$ H, m% gConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.8 c v- Y+ h2 e" C p
: l2 l [7 b2 U: Q# A[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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