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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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% J q2 U" O5 e2 xProof: - R @9 k/ I/ ?- p: x
Let n >1 be an integer . Y" h- p1 l x2 x$ t3 i# J0 U4 t
Basis: (n=2)8 X3 h: p u: D* }5 e. ^/ l9 F
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 31 J- N4 I2 D% G+ M
5 h9 b$ I3 A2 Q: m: S; uInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that; c7 ]6 ~" ?8 Q/ @# c; h
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.( R# O. b3 d/ ^5 R% }' o& M
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
+ b! F/ B# R5 o1 ~6 Z0 H6 Gsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem2 Y3 I. ?1 S# W& G9 b6 `; I! f
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
6 |+ r+ [4 u, O; d = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K) i) e+ x. @/ w6 Q) E
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)+ F. K0 d, t( o0 j
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
) G; `1 \$ M( U0 k4 Bby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
% m( ^, ^* I2 N) ^0 Q* n) ySo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)5 U) h4 x/ y4 I5 F7 S& i2 M( Z9 l
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
7 R; g0 f, f! D& Z: E. c' o = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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