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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n): d/ N) X9 m+ F) C Z6 q$ k( u" C" _
' I. w7 D6 q* e/ I, g; v7 pProof:
) s9 {, n4 u; Q3 s2 H! j9 nLet n >1 be an integer
* V$ A2 y( ]& S* W7 b( pBasis: (n=2)( _3 ^6 ~. ?, c, [
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that4 W: E! I, h0 M9 }1 n2 f% r: T
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.& N; h9 {" l* b. U
) n1 z( z& c8 {Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
: {( S+ q% T8 C- y& y; s" `since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem" t* J8 r* @$ ~$ [
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1). k( B" K% S$ \: s, U$ I j7 Z7 d
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K M9 R! U4 p' J8 l/ p4 v1 a! ]8 |
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
6 O6 H/ t+ f% s7 `* Z = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
/ L5 a6 Z2 @& Pby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0" S$ H. W; ~' g. S: |
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
0 G$ T+ U5 L9 i* U, u4 f = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
& y. l& w* m0 X- R% `: o- j4 U8 d = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3* H& W( R: `# t' t a
2 j0 K5 ~% _, d6 S. `Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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# R8 E) O8 J( m9 t[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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