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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
5 S3 O& B- k: L2 n+ T& U& l7 p k( G3 a1 \' R
Proof: / f% E# S* ?$ z( Q
Let n >1 be an integer
. f1 O: h1 U0 q7 `- EBasis: (n=2)
5 q; T; e: \5 t' `0 Z7 f2 k5 n1 o 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 38 z( m+ O) X, V E6 z
! t* D" y- X+ k' L) }) O
Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
, L: P; P2 m, j/ S; ]6 ` K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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# ]' Y6 E# A1 ]# rNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
, y, w6 s1 W h+ s* v" l$ G8 ?since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem2 _! J" a4 Y0 P
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
# V" g7 _/ H3 b% t/ z9 n" G7 v = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
( e. M/ \) Q+ e$ s+ ^8 ]* Z = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
' M% x; a4 }7 Q9 @" l* v = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)* m/ w' b7 x8 g* x! n9 k! _
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
; m4 \( f1 e" Y( @So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
! e3 W* {" c, o5 y* a& O$ X = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
3 p. ?3 l0 f. V6 ~ o$ ` = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 30 |; F( l. a7 @) x& R
: b7 i0 s6 N) }/ l3 WConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.) t( J5 r$ y) Y2 n; z
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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