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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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0 e& p5 q' v, M! o5 ~# L- y% {, qProof: 3 E2 ~2 E$ e) ?$ k& W3 N& j6 p
Let n >1 be an integer
" Z. `( r$ s; p) i/ d2 vBasis: (n=2)
- g: `' Y0 w) R0 n( k 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 38 @% n7 y9 S5 C( _9 W0 \- e
" u1 X0 i/ x# iInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that0 B5 D+ N! y# v" H
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.9 Y8 I7 J2 ] Q) j
& f7 O/ k" @: @8 Q) k& Y0 [Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 33 i Q( b! Q7 Z) Z
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
* [& i$ O% p3 Z& G0 ]7 \Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
) ~$ L8 s2 W- O6 N: a# A = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
' x7 {! f, }9 ]. J: Q = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
1 O) A; G; T% p! ]. k1 T, F- p8 b = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
/ E( m# Y; \( V$ U) h% Yby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
. m D) j& A3 A8 m4 {So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
0 N. W2 H* I; { = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)' S3 m' l% [3 n2 _# E
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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# D4 E0 N+ `5 {) c$ Q3 FConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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/ T* w# {0 |# V! s7 c[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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