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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)6 |; }% z8 q b& ~2 P
4 s0 x7 w7 x- k1 K3 f& j( a0 IProof:
$ y: P6 o+ ]1 `! ]+ J* ~Let n >1 be an integer
. d d* ~+ X) t6 g) ] v wBasis: (n=2)
- O o3 U( Q- @4 m" r( r1 f 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that' _8 A+ _# w% U1 l2 m- s
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.5 G) ^; ~/ T# I+ C1 ]
$ `0 N- I* I# ^! q- z* \Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
/ ^% p5 [ `1 M0 `! D; Psince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
5 v+ _) o1 M9 R. ]# T3 hThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
; H2 L. L7 {! P; |% K) d; f = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K; [0 g6 d: \6 g/ c
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K) a" p4 x. g' n( B9 t# {6 k
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)! d# b5 n4 h* J6 P
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
: \3 M! Q( z/ @! b, M0 ?. I0 sSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
0 D; t8 k$ E4 J% s = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)" E& Q- N; Q" G! c+ D Z9 N) m$ [
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3( R0 Z; f, ]8 S2 A& h! b: g" E
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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; G! h4 S4 @+ P' h/ B2 _6 F[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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