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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)' s+ z: w7 D5 ~5 K$ c" y0 [
8 x% I: X0 u9 [: p% fProof:
p; |# ]7 I/ X3 h' q6 F# qLet n >1 be an integer
0 \1 e( w! W% _" M1 \1 u. s# `( UBasis: (n=2)
- s- W+ b. K* t* I/ \" C$ ? 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that$ A8 ?8 |% n8 ^
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.. S1 s9 d* x4 O! C
3 |- R1 g" x, o# z
Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
( h8 \0 ]' K% Wsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem* G8 M- `& _ p! }- s7 Y6 g
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)& ^) |' l0 s6 @( n$ F2 j
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K# |/ Y0 u: s0 ^6 H P- l/ n- r8 ]
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
& j- w, }8 y: M% V* w. k* v( G = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
0 Y% A# ^5 T$ J0 t+ A& f9 D3 I: Dby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
$ M v/ K& S) ^So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
+ o3 e' j; `1 l \3 J( v = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K) e- i. I9 c4 z; Z* t7 u \0 r0 I
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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: T( o, E; X3 `3 D6 k1 I1 fConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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