 鲜花( 53)  鸡蛋( 0)
|
This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n) X+ b$ c% L2 G" {8 o$ q
) o7 W7 Q" g$ o
Proof: W" L4 n/ a6 A# `
Let n >1 be an integer
2 Y1 O! z2 t+ g) u5 r+ n \1 QBasis: (n=2)6 u. a1 ~5 z8 z# ~
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3' t1 p8 K5 {$ r4 w7 K
8 k, r; }7 x$ R6 DInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that. ~ o$ a7 p; K* w
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.4 K/ G! [3 Y# x. J, H6 S* \2 c
4 n; s9 I; \1 u: n- t8 |Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3* S+ h- A0 |0 n
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
. r) {! z- G4 C- UThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
+ p8 s' U/ ?4 D7 @: Y' ~ = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K( }8 Z/ R, t% _( z, i5 F
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
6 g+ _$ ?5 X5 c6 { = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
0 S) O' k& I4 Q/ W- Dby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>04 b- @: J( ^8 n4 E# |1 f$ n1 J
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
. ^1 u e$ x5 X Q$ `7 ~ = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
2 p% F r& x! |5 R# @: w# d = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 30 p' ^* l/ l1 o( ~( r2 p
, \2 F' k6 l6 g% b# T: W3 oConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
% k5 b' p, _! V7 K; ^9 ]0 f' |3 @; O$ h9 g4 {" m9 s4 J- }3 i
[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
|