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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)" p$ V0 @8 }/ j, G0 R( L* {
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Proof: ' d8 B( P! l( @' n! O
Let n >1 be an integer ; o! m; Y2 X8 \& s+ D
Basis: (n=2)
; P% G e( F1 y* s 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 30 j5 f* F0 i9 ]' O( \2 z$ m0 B
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
! @: f. \/ n7 a) n6 W K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
# g( M: X- x" g( e) `since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem% s E, R0 Z: ?
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
, i- ^. m4 Y+ _+ \9 y# X, B6 g = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K: P. m. ?- `, J
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K). K# d) r. O7 @! D
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
/ Q/ c: v7 A) l: s Iby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
7 s+ e9 c$ g. a/ e o0 P. U$ oSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)1 u0 r! W" Z' z: H- l2 R/ y7 p
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)6 D! u6 A0 M+ P/ E+ a
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 32 D) N& ?$ G2 }4 ]$ p& i) D
3 r* g0 f R1 L7 oConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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6 z$ o8 L/ b6 O. m- N0 ?% A[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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