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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)% I% L+ W* ?3 r4 D& R9 E6 x
3 g* R9 a2 B) O/ H/ XProof:
5 Y: W. t8 d6 k3 S6 iLet n >1 be an integer $ L8 X7 g& q) s1 H' S/ j0 W4 j/ L
Basis: (n=2)
9 }! I8 N0 k$ A+ `. G/ ^! k; G 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that ~$ v& {- p9 E R) {0 U: |
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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/ h5 I3 h# F) I. o$ U, LNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
/ r4 M8 d0 s$ U7 P: vsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem( b: ^$ _5 s% o. H% x* {, z
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
$ R7 r5 P+ H9 } e = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
7 U# ]7 v# m% M& @1 m8 Q = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
( i; o( g I' P5 i% `* y = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)8 ]; s8 e5 e; U1 |, |
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0& X) P" T* o+ Y( R9 t
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
0 \/ T$ R. X$ Y' j% V5 V = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K): \* `( g# i. v; n! ^) l/ M
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 30 x& ^3 o0 g, H: d. i- P
5 b% c, G2 p, v8 Z6 A6 z
Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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$ X1 j0 H& u. Z[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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