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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)' X2 A" l6 @8 q& _0 |7 W5 P
% ^7 X2 x( w9 R2 GProof: $ c7 V) H5 q' v$ ?3 S
Let n >1 be an integer k7 H5 d8 Y* x5 z; ?1 a3 C
Basis: (n=2)
, Q5 g# y, h9 k* ^/ b% s7 E: b' W 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that( O7 ~& ]% K. s
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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" U- `4 u4 h% [0 t# o' F$ oNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3, l- _0 M8 i; V0 o6 l( X& @
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem9 T' D$ }9 T, c/ c; f Z
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
8 ]; f* \) n3 ], e = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K7 u5 t% r2 l) [) _: u+ P3 `/ E
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)3 |; U3 |1 K9 G8 E7 b5 S6 n" N3 p
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)8 `+ h4 p2 R# f5 ~' K" L6 n
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0- y L( }/ z; l" q0 t) Y
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)/ b( n# v1 [ e! ?) J# J
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
; `$ K1 U! h8 J = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3; Q }! y' o1 l/ S; F: `
3 u5 k( I9 s( ]Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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9 x2 R8 P. o% m2 f! R8 K& h[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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