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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n); t+ c3 Q8 [/ d4 B
5 D, i" ]2 |3 L H' IProof:
! e# z. H0 P7 |2 l! n& b& XLet n >1 be an integer 6 d, S2 o. L- @# m
Basis: (n=2)
0 W- d* _ N- T4 l# \- E7 S3 p- X 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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& a( h( u }% S2 K) p" \% e) \) u2 _Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that5 j. G; X! z4 D) v- o( t8 U
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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! V+ f; N/ ?: j! wNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 36 ~' M! X+ |% G% ~
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
; u) W/ D( \5 v6 z9 |* u8 V3 |! }) AThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
; h* o6 I; m- P& z U, M& F = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
( P7 r7 Q2 j! S9 ^: d0 V1 g/ S = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
6 ]# C5 M' P W! h+ J2 ` = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
8 p: A1 L+ [) e) U+ e/ Wby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
; q# l) J1 [2 ]* LSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
4 W1 ^9 J9 }$ x+ B6 D = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
# _5 n6 h/ q0 T: T9 A = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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; E0 {6 I m% n- jConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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