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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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Proof:
0 o/ w/ m1 o3 ~% @; _Let n >1 be an integer
! E0 p9 X4 i' wBasis: (n=2)
$ A6 L$ ?; q% q, B2 k" J1 m 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3( X& z1 I8 U3 d
& S5 k* ], I( x; U( lInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
) q2 M4 v8 Z1 V2 } K^3 – K can by divided by 3.6 f4 ~* R" k4 Q" H, \: z6 l8 |
- s6 \, x' P% PNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 31 i; e# I5 A# [5 U K
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
0 z/ q) o6 ~) C2 N+ w l$ R# IThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)# A5 T! r- w, z) s! {9 k! s
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
6 w l3 s4 q5 J, v, J4 w" ] = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)1 V; T o4 d6 I }/ d7 r# b. q
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
4 a% o* A' v8 @2 a# yby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0; q6 T9 K2 Y7 q4 y4 }
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
+ K( N1 u1 o- y3 D5 j = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
* x8 l' p A' O3 l9 q% w. Y& R, s! K3 r = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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