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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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Proof:
2 C# }% W- P0 @0 Y: D9 [Let n >1 be an integer
4 o8 B$ h7 {6 wBasis: (n=2)9 v3 W8 k: i7 ~4 y, t
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3 X: _0 v1 \$ q2 G/ e2 h& ~) [
/ @9 _, Y: c; d0 c' H% mInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that+ }. ], l# s3 W, q: P3 i6 m4 Z1 _
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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) v% g, x) v/ y F* x' @* hNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
7 ]% m0 G0 D2 O$ O! l# @since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem' G1 s3 s/ o/ G0 b) @+ f9 W+ ~+ E
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)4 g% e7 _& M0 a) B. H2 X
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K0 W4 S$ r; t8 q8 T$ a
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
3 p, |0 P' U( Z: [+ l. L1 ^ b = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
O/ ]* V" ^& e" F/ j0 w$ ^by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
' k1 @( L: x2 rSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)- k2 `# J) b2 |0 U
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
: u: Q* V+ a$ K x; e) P = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3' U+ X3 t, ^5 n
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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. K- b C! e `1 f) r[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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