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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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1 d2 q& i! N1 M+ Q: x- i) oProof: 4 I) O9 _ J7 ]) |+ L" L3 ]
Let n >1 be an integer 3 R- s* h) b# B6 _* C- ?, o
Basis: (n=2)
& ?& G* ~5 J, g3 q h% C# ] 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
h2 g/ l' [7 Y$ _' r' `* R. N" ~8 c) [* I0 I1 M
Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
) c/ l7 s- s& p) L1 k$ Y! x( D } K^3 – K can by divided by 3.6 `( `9 L; k! H% R5 d7 X8 c D: T# e) T5 {
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 35 {9 t1 a/ i* M" o1 ]% P; L* E* f
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem X: c3 b# U2 K
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
' Z8 n6 O' `+ n( z) ]9 o = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K" l2 y1 n1 j: E6 @2 O6 m3 E) N
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
1 G1 C7 P4 w" Q; \; Q/ r4 [ = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K), N. i( J ?) U$ `( Y% I: D: ]
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>00 M0 N; J* j; H. v$ h
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
; z* f$ B8 ^% W1 B9 [5 z1 x. o3 V = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
% v K1 f: W; S; X: Q( F* _1 L = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.* p. | }4 ]) D _. Z3 b% ]
) e6 K! A Q" l' ?1 B, l[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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