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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)* z. b7 Y( F+ m( W! t0 _' F
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Proof: $ q% e: n" X0 V2 B
Let n >1 be an integer
0 X8 A# m" j m7 {$ q. [0 K( B: d, DBasis: (n=2)" z5 B% g; U* F
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3( Z( C' o# [8 F6 S9 H4 L
' g) Z- t# z2 t; f3 kInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
) }; r/ `# {3 e! f: O K^3 – K can by divided by 3.; t2 q. d4 \4 a q; i9 s! `
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 37 p4 t# _" x1 V: I1 F% `
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
$ T# S) h( L7 [- FThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
* y) C0 S- l x" G* v5 o = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
) `+ Z1 D ~5 ~% a& | r = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)+ _" W3 p4 ~" l1 Z
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)0 l: a* F/ [) k- J7 O7 l' ~4 e
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
0 p4 Y! K0 R X& G' |% i) cSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)$ B4 v! Q4 ~$ y8 v9 u0 N
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)4 s( H$ l- P8 \& S) D3 `$ S
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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