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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)( V; u9 x& e7 U
" P8 {6 D! S+ \" G" z. MProof: ! ?; J. F" f! ^& c) e
Let n >1 be an integer " Y+ W' M( M) j& i0 o( O8 i g
Basis: (n=2)) D+ T Y: q. M
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
( C* H, W- V! w) H/ F3 I$ m, T4 ]2 V0 {) W, j- M
Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
. n2 h8 g% i) q, U! V+ x2 k) a K^3 – K can by divided by 3." O, P1 M4 c8 ?
* g' k1 B7 W, v& c. z
Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 36 R1 }1 j' w; R7 g6 t
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem; C5 Q9 j y7 S! H" M
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)) w! i0 V/ g) b7 }1 [% p
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K2 Q, {# f5 H5 Y* W5 t
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
/ w1 z1 }- K7 p8 Z5 ~1 R% r; b4 h = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)5 W; d/ s0 u. i( s
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0 y% W# q# |3 @; Y' @- Q( A
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)- m* U$ F+ N# w- U1 o5 P
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)& E, ~# Q6 ^; S/ Y% Y( ~9 U( e
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
4 \+ I; k2 }8 \; W
4 o7 N& e& I8 J' e6 FConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.1 t) G3 V0 q; z0 r
2 }( a' ^* o& } p
[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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