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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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4 |3 L7 @) e( H* n6 c4 n3 tProof:
' X5 C2 M& H9 _* n* T9 R7 Z1 X4 n$ o+ T( QLet n >1 be an integer & @/ z& u1 O" r: p
Basis: (n=2)
3 j& g+ ]& I- K" a* C" i( L 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3% r) @4 ~, q: j$ @
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
/ v o( s7 r F f- e3 M5 J K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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: Y) b, u& B$ d% P( k/ `3 C& q" t* ~" V oNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
2 J* j$ Y) Y' T( I4 Fsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
( G& a8 j) ]; ]' P1 s/ N1 z9 ]Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)( V+ c9 [# f" Y# n* I
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K, f/ z: A1 J- q6 ?) d
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)/ l1 {" _$ ]( L' M c
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
8 E; A# N+ y4 [: r! { i; S5 u Kby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>04 T* x! h- K/ L' V/ \; |# C
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
1 y! b& u$ ~+ y+ g2 @. X = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K); q/ \- s' s& G: m
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.3 O: L& P K0 c5 a, Y( w6 n. f- |
" I2 i( q8 [9 Q, j0 _' g+ w[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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