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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)9 r b/ w0 Z) o
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Proof: U$ v, U& F/ }8 \
Let n >1 be an integer
; O0 r0 `& J3 c: z& h# _2 SBasis: (n=2)
& ^' X! I- k3 w0 s6 z 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
! C0 X h" u; J* ]
4 ^) I, a1 O% J- R* @7 ?! rInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
% S: u" H0 V. Z) A0 v K^3 – K can by divided by 3., t7 h* K* p- Y# F# t+ H6 c. r9 c
9 B8 t7 `; o5 @Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3$ P) u* |; `6 j9 n7 F1 X
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem5 h8 y2 ^8 p. g8 U3 u2 v
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)1 M% K: W. T q" w/ n
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
6 E @: z) \3 |% S, J = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K): `$ m, O) p5 b, i
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
3 i; j& c3 L1 a# V7 Vby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
- A, x+ h+ i' d& QSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)! _6 D B# S1 f, ]$ o
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)3 M% G4 G0 \$ e; Q! o/ @4 |5 ^* Q
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
6 p/ x ?& k9 D# g; X h* ~ Z4 |5 O; L
Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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8 k7 ?: a% A9 m, h0 e[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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