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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)$ ]# i: Z0 U0 z. f$ n
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Proof:
" ~( G! b" A( q/ x1 jLet n >1 be an integer * w( ~1 V. _2 F! c9 f! l& g
Basis: (n=2)( W( H' k, I8 ]2 Y$ ~+ }
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 39 L) E0 s I/ w3 G1 a
; ]/ R4 {, o1 U& A1 `4 j; S0 OInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
F8 {* y8 A5 M. Y" w K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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' G* u. z- U* H; O5 y9 ANow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3% c8 d2 i: r3 R. j
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem8 M( \$ V! m( h6 x" O4 J
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)$ M/ y9 @ l( @6 @: W/ T5 Z2 c
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
`2 p4 V3 S8 ? = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)+ v( G& q1 I& W1 M; u! r8 ^
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
! b$ B3 `% e: i2 l" m3 p4 e' l( y% T5 uby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
3 ~8 P% F7 l+ A6 i* }3 O' ESo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
) k! M5 g4 G5 C" e. x- o/ d = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)% R- e o8 t1 J/ d
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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0 R' y. |% Q' f5 V6 w% G* OConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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