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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)! \# k/ J$ x$ O" ^! k
+ K1 m. ~+ \# w3 R6 y
Proof: & V" |3 k, z! w' C" E) M' m
Let n >1 be an integer , c7 \8 s! U; U3 e; J
Basis: (n=2)* g2 n/ |% m+ w q
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3% y' o5 @+ r7 V- O7 r
: C/ C& J k6 z3 r- L
Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
8 Q) j9 b' ^, L. K* | K^3 – K can by divided by 3.* ~7 a/ f% _+ M$ E8 S: l
2 c4 h. t9 d2 h9 M9 n3 e7 i" xNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
; ?& K) g. I1 u" R4 c2 Vsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem- f5 G ]0 ~& E/ Q
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)" o% K }6 T* d7 D
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K# N- m- w) U" {1 }5 l
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)9 g% i h' ^4 Y' z7 y
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)8 j% f/ P; j. W9 F- P; D9 {1 K
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0( L$ c7 T, o4 M
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)7 b: v9 d, Z) Q0 Q$ i7 @
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
0 D% ? C+ J2 g6 g1 A = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3/ [2 e7 h6 {3 ~$ n8 B8 h
3 A0 U7 ?% \+ Z. t1 k. B* e
Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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' W; [; r/ {2 d" |/ S/ j( _[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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