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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n); }/ i( v* M4 ], P) c/ D
2 J0 u: e- f1 C4 o4 |$ fProof:
$ O) V$ g0 A4 O0 A0 i4 B( VLet n >1 be an integer & c" S9 N( G/ D% t% U1 d4 |
Basis: (n=2)
" q8 D, |+ Q; B- r0 u7 r1 H C 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 32 E" u {' A& M) n3 z
: v* ~2 \* A' r9 {Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
$ C" j$ s; k4 E3 u* R K^3 – K can by divided by 3.- D; }2 N1 l9 I) m
5 J7 ^& {7 L5 Q; o3 P% ONow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
5 x% C6 R; O) H. Vsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
: X! A6 Z9 K" H: v& X' w* jThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)$ U. n# t! ~* f* q' A0 c: E
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K2 {$ ]+ j& W/ h
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K) G2 f' t( _3 r# X
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
1 Y. j# X& a1 }; _" mby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
9 m( `+ T0 l. K4 N! HSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)( S9 v$ L0 p$ b* T
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
. l- p( Q% |6 N# N" J' N = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
5 C/ o- S# ~( g. U o8 `- Q& W; Z( W
Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
4 C, [% \9 b8 a" R$ [8 H* M) M
7 \1 ?3 Z0 x; R/ @[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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