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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
, z5 N, Y& r# r# P5 S7 j0 P( ~5 o6 O/ J1 i* A# R8 ^2 ?
Proof: 9 p2 V% y6 l$ D2 M' X# y
Let n >1 be an integer # \3 M2 g. I; w' f. I
Basis: (n=2)
U( J) N4 r/ ]6 k 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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; O( a; z _1 N/ gInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
: ~8 y3 K+ N) @/ v, f: ~ K^3 – K can by divided by 3.$ i9 w5 x6 \, m/ A7 O& W+ U2 j
8 s7 w8 P# I4 _Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
3 \9 ~! a6 ?$ p, Y: a* `/ B# V, ]$ ~: \: v# Jsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem+ h# H _2 ]) Z5 D
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
/ @. ?0 y- w* i! B& z- m = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K/ b/ [2 s8 @2 N" j5 d8 A
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)/ o8 V% H, W) w/ j2 L
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)) {; f: q. W) }( j8 [
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>04 A3 x! Y3 r7 Q3 N& k; F1 ^
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
! n1 E9 ~) P0 w = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)& _3 r. \ d9 ^6 j5 o# r
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3 F' _$ G' G2 |) k- l
# Z3 V9 S! j/ {" d: I) PConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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- K! X# J' t ^' _. [[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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