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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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Proof: / u6 C* O: t( f" F2 e0 m
Let n >1 be an integer ) a" D+ _; V8 w2 u- i
Basis: (n=2)
% r* ]) T& K$ r! J 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3. ]! \7 `* Y; a$ y% c! S; W% B5 X( y
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that( Q% H" N% y. s9 `& I
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.: N' @6 E. b$ a4 d9 t& k9 Z8 H7 v
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 32 p! ^4 |- R5 V2 | W& i$ H+ Y( V7 ~7 G
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem( L' V# M8 Q0 C( P b
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)' f: ^3 w' {! U/ r4 W
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K* D& U1 Q' r! ]( v
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
N3 C4 ?$ `. Y( v4 ]3 D/ e = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)0 k9 A5 X5 ^; V7 z
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>06 D2 |5 J- Y2 h: H& B+ ?5 h/ x
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
- r2 X' e! ^) a- ]* E/ v' J# c = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
" D0 A3 T* r* h( t% Y2 o3 z% d, A; G = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3# r+ P: @+ H. C k
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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* N+ H# z, k% B8 N( \[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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