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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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Proof: 8 k, |0 ^; j# ?+ R0 F$ t! k
Let n >1 be an integer
. U$ R0 a2 H# i; ~5 DBasis: (n=2)
/ x# a8 a/ u# ?, i. b. }" x% l5 X2 H 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 32 i% u' ]2 A! h, l$ z+ m: `
7 V- z9 u/ ?% W. r# TInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
# a+ t. `" m$ X* Q3 ]. _1 q K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
+ }! L" t. u; }; W3 s* ?since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
8 i! _1 j' \1 J- sThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
' D) B' } D8 D3 M5 W2 f# T8 b4 F/ ? = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
; c3 V% {& g. D! `4 o, b = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)/ l3 W9 U; d( S! |$ n4 l5 A: ]/ V
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
* i5 L: u) |/ m4 ]8 eby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
; J" E9 o+ h. m+ } s/ A9 \7 x/ aSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)7 d6 {0 v) {. |# B
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)9 Q" [) x, Y$ l) J; ^1 c1 y) x
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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% f7 i- X( p' ^Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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% l/ f/ i6 K1 v7 C[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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