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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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s P: O1 l1 Q i6 aProof:
. {9 m5 M& A4 t* S9 ]Let n >1 be an integer
* ]; O. Z% f% r. y0 d9 C9 KBasis: (n=2)8 V! c4 c2 m2 k. W
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 38 S) T8 w+ W4 O9 C4 O
. @% w% v" J/ ]2 Y- ~+ fInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that5 x' H3 P6 W z& \. ~( F& J) w# U: j
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.# ~* n* d @% c3 f" P/ O9 k" U5 B( v
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3! m* q7 f8 ]& v( M) P& l
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem0 ~2 t/ ]; Y% G' J, n
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
: F2 z3 Q: a( U = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
2 @5 P8 v9 l" L6 j; O* f6 P = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K); V2 d6 N1 J# F0 ^
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
) G7 I( I a7 p. K+ \' l+ y8 Iby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
* y' s6 R, N) \6 b0 _$ R3 vSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
; J/ o3 q9 D4 R6 H7 s6 g1 b: h = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)7 h) I% X" ]# `; E1 g
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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0 v7 e) E7 o, o. a' ^9 O[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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