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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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- `$ H/ N9 l: C2 h* L. i6 VProof: ; e5 L) j' P% g) l8 J$ J4 |5 T
Let n >1 be an integer 4 b- m; g4 _4 P0 M6 z, t6 `) {6 L
Basis: (n=2)) s$ ?- e3 t" M9 [
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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& u8 ]) z1 k) t; I$ `6 u. T9 S' E2 c1 ~; _Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
7 Y% f q! {9 S" X K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
y8 k& U R4 m( fsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
' B# b* o# k3 y+ ?; K4 S7 V& g3 A3 |Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)% K/ [, `: U$ y7 Y/ `4 m, f
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
! _6 z% ?7 Y/ U% K9 b9 N = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K) l" n3 L. q7 D: w5 M4 z
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
6 x5 w2 t' q( t' _3 e+ V% R* r6 Xby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
; x/ Q: n" B1 \4 vSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
% f: a8 H \6 ], R: _ = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
/ ]8 T6 r. X6 \8 V/ R+ G = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.1 i* c& _/ P4 A4 B; f& q, l
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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