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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)* H; W2 K( F2 [1 z$ f, H
8 _. a/ Y9 }; B: KProof:
i8 k0 U2 j0 h) ~ }2 o- \Let n >1 be an integer 0 B* Z+ v8 Q* \$ r
Basis: (n=2); f* a3 }, e `. i
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3. n3 c' g: p; m* D
R1 r) D% u, W* e+ {( g
Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that( ~3 O. o2 j; l. E% j
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
: Z" G6 d% `( [( h- a$ ~9 O8 W2 W& ^3 t; i' a# H2 j2 g; m
Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 37 q( W1 D- z$ j& w( P
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
& a0 [9 g! T5 YThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
% v) q! P( @* G5 ~! N1 J! h = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
4 |/ @4 H- k* Y& s6 x# W; Z1 `$ N2 }! ~ = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)! {0 c, Q ]6 I- {
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)9 L$ R) Q1 W ^' r
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
1 x/ y) T1 f; h, e, G" QSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
. Q- n" V6 w6 w# |$ C. q* S& {7 [ = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
) Q" a, s% T# ]. Q# q = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3; t$ V' F; f( I7 q7 n; A7 G [
5 g/ e1 C. t: `3 |5 Y+ e5 DConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
% T7 U H) d# e' c5 {- B3 i+ L: m, |9 e# ^; }+ P1 [
[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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