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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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$ f/ j5 c5 h6 \9 qProof:
3 M6 O. X6 Z) o5 ULet n >1 be an integer 0 Y8 E p0 K2 v6 E- ?
Basis: (n=2)/ V# ^9 k- W) j/ Y
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 30 `9 V6 v. G d& H X& |5 L. N; T3 O
* o3 ~" e3 s( n6 h0 \0 `! }3 AInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that9 C8 }) A5 Y6 Y3 r% E9 k
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
8 ?! Z1 {$ V* L* z h; Vsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem4 p1 d; Q) i$ n1 q3 G+ w+ J! U1 y
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)9 E3 C" Y+ ^8 V( f" ~' r+ S1 X( I
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
6 H% x- P6 ^9 q! S" y = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
6 W2 h7 R% q/ o: R; E$ f = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
7 {$ b; }% ~) v P9 vby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0 }4 h! W! u5 B
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
: ~0 |( D# z2 e = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)7 t" p" y& } J3 |3 ^ K
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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4 F9 W# {5 [1 W( r" X[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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