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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)5 c- P3 K& K2 n G4 |! H
, r" Z" Q" k2 x7 r5 E, JProof: 3 k/ p$ l8 {# S& N7 z
Let n >1 be an integer
' D! p! n1 K+ `( ~! p0 K) LBasis: (n=2)# T# e' }6 [4 {! m) n8 d! U V
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3$ U* f' y! o- b3 B; m
- V" a/ W7 a. A. kInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
4 m' N: J) p3 m ~ K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
' T' h& y9 T1 Q' e+ A$ {# I) x! X+ r" Q$ f
Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 30 G7 D l$ |, I8 E2 w6 K
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem3 g/ A9 u8 ^% d2 g2 x- F
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)! Z; p) c' B/ t
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
3 L7 ~/ x1 U# U5 i0 V = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
6 k e# z" F2 { M = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
! o `& s0 A$ q* hby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0' Z4 m0 M) w3 J* k( @9 i* G3 B2 @
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
4 r. ~6 U# S, e$ T = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
9 t% d$ A# t+ p5 I = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3) F0 m& H1 [- m6 F
! v- K% y* r* m, @# H+ m* {
Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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