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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)* h4 h9 S8 H* d" Q
- P8 l) ?1 w2 R7 D) R/ f& ]" DProof: 6 Y" N8 I/ x7 n: f3 d
Let n >1 be an integer " {/ t) O3 m Z
Basis: (n=2)! y. D; J* V& Z A
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 35 o1 U4 Q' J0 ~3 z8 r
3 @- X1 v) H. T2 K* r8 }1 T1 ~! |Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that- y$ K% ?/ `! w0 P6 w1 X
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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$ o2 u" G5 S' M |; wNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
5 M6 G- g3 J0 p% r1 V+ `4 z6 R6 [# Wsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem1 Z; Y( |- ]! K( }2 }2 M+ O3 P
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)' f0 E1 D7 e/ t
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
" I7 M! i9 L( T& z = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
- n+ Q [; [3 P/ x' |7 W1 i = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)/ j4 ^9 q d8 D& `7 W1 G
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
3 u' l9 Z1 O7 H" F# ISo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)) S! S8 Z+ N7 B) R, m
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)# R: u5 o4 q, Y& n! y/ V8 u; j
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
: M( z7 i$ S4 a, Q f9 `2 S+ f% c u' u, R2 I
Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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