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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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Proof:
8 e. N9 q" Y% Y1 ^. c' ELet n >1 be an integer
/ s: p' ~9 C- c5 vBasis: (n=2)
2 A$ A* ^' ? n0 N) A. q' V$ S 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
8 A. X9 \) `0 H. c
- S$ s# d4 i4 L h5 Y* K$ hInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
6 ?- q$ Z3 ~" t8 P) \" O& P/ [0 W K^3 – K can by divided by 3.$ b# i. @/ o- [9 W/ l% f
0 o0 K% F2 K3 @% P3 Q( q7 n, @
Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3# c. |. y; y1 K
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem2 b! R3 a; H! a
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)8 f+ w/ T6 e% Q/ k6 _# J- V# ~+ ?
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
/ D) C7 E! T8 F6 i5 v = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)" @6 W6 z/ o B3 k v% B
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
( J6 J8 k' `7 P$ E+ g4 eby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0! l# B3 P& C' C
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K), c) A' v& Y! B W$ B8 z
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)2 g/ B: U0 s, }) J" a* d
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 39 I1 t- H U) m( h4 h
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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