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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)0 o, n$ x* _9 R4 G6 }* C. s
: y5 d9 V7 T! aProof:
! W8 E8 A* l8 p5 p( ^Let n >1 be an integer
8 g& ?2 o: x" W) a6 W: Z+ n6 jBasis: (n=2)) h* T& B: U* C: C0 @1 j
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 30 e- R+ j, }9 J
/ k+ Z+ @8 P0 E# h% h1 `' @
Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that0 C( Z) ~ e+ h
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.4 T2 x3 x6 b, O# X
5 M+ s! g2 Y6 a2 T/ \) ONow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 39 X& r# g* d! J& s
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem0 c- U6 X5 l, c H
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)9 J, T) ^6 w( r* w0 e! Q* R; r* g9 [
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
! y' Z3 W# m! D( v8 M = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K): q w/ p$ ~, {
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)- b$ X+ w8 _9 O' M, n
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
, ~3 ]3 Z3 v: v* q9 tSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
t7 g. j4 h' B5 B = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
! U. ^9 J7 X+ c* w2 x6 t* [ = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
Q# ?; @4 J& }' Q+ x
F) I. g+ s; A* vConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1., k& B3 E! a. h3 n( s
2 n& O& A4 v+ W; J) T$ K6 x) S( v, l
[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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