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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)& D4 j* \. a6 w u
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Proof:
0 M2 f4 K c0 m5 ULet n >1 be an integer
9 F$ h( j6 F; ABasis: (n=2). a, p+ _8 g( K- N6 ]+ B. }
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 35 R' B. C& s* L' W0 @6 c, O8 d
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
# Q; W" G' F: Q' |0 Y/ q K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
5 R, J$ s8 J! ?6 f: [since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
- O2 S s7 ^# u$ NThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)* J" R3 a0 c _. }9 @
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K* a: s# y/ t6 N% A3 x
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
. B% C C# ~4 D" j = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)/ C* i! l( r% s; P$ Y7 S1 U
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>08 H# w3 t' @0 q+ i3 E7 F
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
! r3 S) n: ~ |. T2 w; g6 o/ s = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
" l2 s4 @! @/ K2 q% e- J0 _+ r = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3: Z' V+ ]( V0 k5 u7 F3 J
! K& U0 i5 u) C+ h. IConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.+ e/ T+ p* P5 M4 l
7 T9 F3 S+ [' @+ P" u; ?. a: n# S[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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