 鲜花( 53)  鸡蛋( 0)
|
This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)( R& i6 W) u% p4 Z, n. t
- U. \; r- H8 h0 l
Proof: - q, @6 z4 q4 Q0 c9 s
Let n >1 be an integer
& ^& B, B6 V/ t" B& wBasis: (n=2)
/ V L8 r* v( e: ~7 t 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
* [7 q v8 ]; s! `5 Z0 F" D+ J$ C( A7 p2 H- g2 n% L
Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that' E% p* R( p" g" {
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.- {5 u3 b! [, R0 B% O+ m) ]7 S% S
* C- e1 ?# @* |Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3/ L- r, s* o1 s' H, }
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem8 B" u6 f- r) x. R N
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)4 A3 t z5 w5 C2 x
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K/ l5 E( Z0 {4 X! O5 m
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)2 }2 P: n& h6 q [! D
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
& Y8 S7 Z$ X+ P# }1 Bby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0. ^2 v+ n8 m& s4 V$ ]! c
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)/ e2 p) Q% O- ? ?2 _
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)! A4 ~( U; U+ @5 Q. O( Y- y- N
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 39 I$ V7 R0 s& E1 U. r+ z
" ~8 {5 E1 S" k4 V0 b h) K
Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
; ~# ?: B D8 z3 K) G) g X% N0 x! J* r) D, {0 F; T
[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
|