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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)- o( s# d: S9 m7 s
9 ]! R$ T6 ]3 Z/ @2 m HProof:
3 ^! \: H7 n" w* K- N) \! BLet n >1 be an integer
2 S7 Y4 _% P, ? J/ D; m9 h! HBasis: (n=2)
5 s* A& G+ C3 s1 L 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 30 M3 M9 h# K1 X: z
) p& S4 p# |6 \" `* RInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
1 D. i9 U( W4 w4 c K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
5 Q# g" g# A: _1 j% f3 W0 G/ b$ T- J/ T; O) h; x6 N
Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 38 K4 x) I+ |0 s6 z, I. K) M3 o# p$ A
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
3 u0 c; F& f! x( PThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)3 z9 e; i! o% A: ^8 B
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K Q; {$ O- P% E$ F
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)' T+ w2 l) U4 \, A; T: \6 L
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
( x9 C% t) N7 e( T" bby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
5 S: ]. o( c* hSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)& ~5 h2 F8 o5 I. Y" g/ }
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)1 B) j$ p3 a4 @' @5 ]
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3: x: _5 _9 i8 T
" Z, \3 z3 X: l. q t: ^
Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
$ s8 j e7 V% J: Y& ?
. e, s W* N0 G! F- ][ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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