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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)4 o4 e8 F" x! n# J t8 j. L, a
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Proof:
, u; } B0 B2 }3 z vLet n >1 be an integer 2 N# h- w6 X$ ^1 ]7 m. y0 C
Basis: (n=2)
7 W4 b; K3 d/ z9 x* s 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that; w: B3 [. U3 ~# I& I' R
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.+ a: P ^) O3 K+ q- O K0 y
2 X& T! d# ~6 o+ X) {+ w" c* yNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
5 A4 j u6 Y. o* N5 jsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem) V" ] @* x5 M& r; O6 V
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)' [, d3 ]/ O: Z. e! E1 d/ y/ V2 K
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K; ^ k/ ], a- g" \4 M0 N: q0 `
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)) w7 T5 A% K0 [
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
, ]2 Z* ?) b1 t( Bby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
& e! p$ B+ C- u2 `$ m8 F" dSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)9 c H6 ?$ j9 ^. B7 p* A1 Z4 l
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
6 H3 z/ f+ x. ^2 m! \ = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 38 O u/ ?9 `6 ?
! U v6 \4 O9 N1 l3 k. RConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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