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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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; a' `* i7 O, O9 f/ ?6 tProof:
, a" A% J8 h8 p4 e' V3 o1 ZLet n >1 be an integer ' e5 U8 f, c- f. [
Basis: (n=2)
5 A" v$ r& R! J) @$ B7 i3 m2 C 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 35 F0 Z4 m8 j, I B7 Z
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that, k0 M7 g/ c' u" c0 K
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.: p* W/ x# P# k& Q
' F' `) n$ O$ M+ ^, U' V" bNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 34 E4 U `; g! E4 D% V0 T
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem3 k3 _# e8 E2 J
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
, v0 S0 h0 Y( @3 y = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K: T! q* t+ H5 l) ~
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
, |: F; @) O' `) Q- h = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)7 F; t7 ]: z7 d
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
& [3 F, H: T; r8 O! v( VSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
% q, A7 y$ }: C/ Q* L = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
* R6 h, Y S( i0 o8 c0 W/ h = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3# C* J8 D0 |; f! T( k3 i
: i+ B4 I9 r8 p, Q
Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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+ R% G! Y/ b0 f3 d& Y6 a# z[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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