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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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4 V3 j7 [& j* U z; a- Q- x$ T# q3 {Proof: 3 @9 R; r3 B/ H/ W7 {5 F
Let n >1 be an integer
4 w$ J" T2 ?" `3 T6 TBasis: (n=2)4 P: Y3 \" K q2 U
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 39 ], F- J/ f8 u1 w
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that$ u+ P( g( L7 m. b) f F- {
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.: b9 E) G9 Z; T! u, y g5 _# {
* y; Z# d9 g2 v4 S' q2 h1 D9 I5 }8 k
Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
0 ^/ Q; Y" d+ Y4 esince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
4 N% o6 G( x T! wThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
, \6 s7 e2 T4 Z, r$ t4 T = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K4 Z& g1 J+ a/ ^" g9 l
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)4 |9 Y, g! U7 [' m p
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
- {- K- W; ]& v' lby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>09 e& j f& Z1 Z
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
3 R, T& d% I) o: J = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
+ f+ M0 ^. E' g3 y: L7 d; ~ = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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