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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)" C/ \1 l# b2 {" F8 |3 }7 I9 Z
! b$ l! R. m0 M. t2 bProof:
# q, g4 I& i$ Q: R MLet n >1 be an integer 8 C! G. c# ? R
Basis: (n=2)
1 k: R' t& g; J 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
& [- r8 g9 T7 _+ v
8 R P: @% K \- E) qInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that0 ~9 @* u/ {3 D+ y q: w5 ?
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.% V& y: w ]: T b3 e
; n( ?' `- H! V- h, ?; t' m! L: X: a% A2 c
Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 34 }! T) A/ W l' b, [$ c
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
' E/ x' V5 D9 L9 a% V9 w- G. B) NThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
) C2 A6 Q% D0 E8 t z% s% U = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
& P) g; N/ C1 Y3 \' p = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)1 I( k& T% C' i) l2 w* ?- W
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
' K% k3 X% `: x2 Xby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0, S/ I- Y1 n) z8 \4 ^
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
7 }8 f7 H; }+ e, H* D = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)9 e# R+ n; |* s1 X) V
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
9 q6 M* y8 J$ R
/ d. n4 W1 U) Z; [% nConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.& i& |4 d( i+ A: `" p
4 U; b& e5 p/ y* D. S$ Y: l[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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