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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)- I+ X8 K& z( t+ |: a: `- ~
5 x, `, _ n& @& X: PProof: ) E* ]: }3 l `# m2 T
Let n >1 be an integer
8 n# Z v! J# z ?( O8 @1 O, z/ cBasis: (n=2), ^" `! E5 i- S4 b) d- G
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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8 _1 z9 J& U0 jInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that/ e! i% [! X Y5 P& t$ C
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.! ]) X6 g% O0 _* |/ U) i/ ^ l
2 c3 R' P. c: `' O' [, M8 ~Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 32 Z6 L6 u2 D" {# p( C! f. L
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
* t E' | A% q0 VThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
@; F! ]) G5 b* t = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K& b$ f8 A: q X4 z* H
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
- ^, I# G' y8 k* W = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
$ L1 P5 q0 g4 u% z: c" cby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
+ z! ^7 V; R- c1 w+ ~3 i, w2 sSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
. S( ?. j; c% [$ k = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)+ k z# o, x0 v0 i& x$ F
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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, G: K* j- Q9 rConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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. }3 [% J- N+ s; K5 g2 w' K2 h[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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