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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)6 b4 r Z6 W i* u1 C: i0 R
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Proof: ! Y- l, i- s7 `; X$ r3 \
Let n >1 be an integer 8 ]9 D' `! B# V5 P4 O/ [; B" d$ ]
Basis: (n=2)
: @: w% J1 N) r+ q( P 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that4 a$ p7 M' r: N: \$ i1 n
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.# k2 h' }; u/ E8 h+ G
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3- x8 N( p, T( j5 c
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
0 }. f) X3 q* M9 AThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1) t8 B" L' E( n( w" j9 v7 H. N0 D
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K6 W/ d0 @& |( I9 C/ ~
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)+ w% u. I( \! C
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
) Z0 p+ }' g/ k& B0 Pby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>02 l+ v) X* W& w
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)7 w7 l" e7 }- Q& C
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
5 X4 y1 C1 }, e# N = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 30 q# G: s' ~8 Z' K
/ ?! k9 k9 a! ?( N( u2 C' AConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.% |. i% ?, W: Q& e, w5 {* u
& N! a. c& t5 R6 f X3 C[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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