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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)9 @0 Y+ S* i+ g+ u8 c- Q" E
. x& p- ]" I, D7 m3 J/ sProof:
' e- f! c6 A: O! ~( t8 L, C6 N* Z# lLet n >1 be an integer
/ N4 m% Y2 h* r: N* A I3 B& sBasis: (n=2)
3 G6 c+ y9 ^' z' }1 ?, e 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that$ c9 m$ _& |; e( l+ u
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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$ t2 q9 O, B7 i' ]$ ]2 i' B6 |6 vNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 31 P* h% R. p+ r$ X6 t; n
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem. T$ q3 G, f# D) x7 R
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
& b/ F$ u* l) k3 `2 @" ^ = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K) ?8 L1 |' U5 ]4 n
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
7 y8 l+ z' E) D2 T! h = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
' x3 S% r4 [7 `; s9 ~. @% |' D$ {& k; hby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
: `' q) n# Y: g5 {' l3 a+ QSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K). i; T1 J/ e! d3 d8 k" F
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)" o" e5 N0 d, N4 Y% W, F& w0 A1 w+ A
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3) G$ a7 X) ]6 ~; d/ m3 `
$ e7 D. i# x/ U) b# OConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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* @# X8 s) V$ G[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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