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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)1 s% {) y7 t7 c) Q$ [
Z* g4 O2 ~* I$ s3 h9 r' SProof: 3 w2 f' y, V; z( e
Let n >1 be an integer 8 N5 C- ~8 [3 _2 v N
Basis: (n=2); X% D, |, C5 ]. g% w7 F
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3 \ i6 ]( b3 ?# l3 Y
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that/ X6 r, A! f0 h, o4 Q; P6 p
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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6 s) x; m/ F- A3 J9 x" u1 W- pNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
) u0 X2 d, U; q" G( V. i3 M8 m tsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
# G* e3 L7 V I2 b( F, t$ g! q4 b" ZThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1); `' c9 T: ~( F1 ^0 r9 d, r+ p' h; A
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
1 ^( t$ u2 d7 q0 }' p = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
) a( H$ @. l# _7 M3 @2 d# S1 Z$ L = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)/ `& [4 w* t4 G
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0* s# |: i/ O$ T% }2 q
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)1 V1 Q S4 ?0 J# \% @. b
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
2 {! ~0 H2 K/ f4 m$ g = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
, T$ e: Z/ d% W% z5 n$ {. C H6 O: n9 `. S
Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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