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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n). g# R7 ~% X4 R3 F, Y) M6 f
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Proof: ' m& u7 D, [3 ^ ^
Let n >1 be an integer
0 c3 y5 x% x% z# z: X zBasis: (n=2)# ^" l) Y# H# R1 A$ a
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 34 r( }2 D6 V1 f1 n, |
& ~4 }6 R6 g3 MInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
2 Y* W) h2 E3 _ K^3 – K can by divided by 3.1 n3 [4 w, L1 e- J/ z
' _! b' A8 [1 C, pNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 32 w W" S+ _( `3 A' c% u/ [7 t
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
* E' n/ Q0 u- L9 N6 x# H- g& X6 ^Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
) Y$ T+ Z+ h& G9 t/ [1 e. j = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K$ T8 ^0 l' m8 d: W
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
5 ?1 Z4 W0 `- B1 J$ w. j$ p = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
, F4 C l F+ E2 aby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
4 H0 N; Y% a8 Q4 w; o: dSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
2 t. {6 E" M7 i' v: ^9 `3 U = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)7 \% K2 v! M; B
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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