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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)2 P% e' G: C, X! A" o. g' u
" x5 { v4 \, g i, ~2 kProof: . e6 R* p: z7 P0 C
Let n >1 be an integer
, a0 D, a) V- fBasis: (n=2)
- p* t" x5 d: H8 M- x 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3: o8 |+ Y0 y, L& e5 C3 `# M
* E) Z: e3 Q" ZInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
5 Y8 Q% X5 I$ {! F K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3! U$ `2 N& d$ x, U+ P1 h
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
5 f2 D8 W7 }+ n: cThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1), {& D, t0 x; e
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
. C5 U' r9 s8 d. c* f- `2 v$ }1 v$ s = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)6 X; i! F& ^. E V" i
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)" G- p. {# R4 [% B% z+ j+ i+ T4 u
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
* c" r1 |1 A5 V# ]2 u" H$ lSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
# U* w" G9 ?9 S = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
# K" k5 j l1 k$ D* N$ T = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3: _; D3 ] q5 j- d
2 l7 V0 D2 T* J- R5 u5 B0 l, T! XConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.' w) P5 T9 h, v, A1 {4 @. u9 W
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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