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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)7 D1 J$ Z1 I, ^" B7 F
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Proof:
5 |" L' m: t0 I5 f0 D# Y4 n. FLet n >1 be an integer # A9 z9 F/ A' @5 r; {
Basis: (n=2)3 o4 @! Z) \* }8 g1 k/ B
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
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( M0 f+ n3 ]& ~Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
8 K' C3 u! ?0 j( K, b$ t% C' f K^3 – K can by divided by 3./ G9 f; ^: N" c' f& N; p+ a
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
( i& Q4 K0 [" P/ B5 f4 F+ gsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
, v6 n* }- z5 I R" o9 IThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)$ p5 d( {& Q$ \3 \. u8 V% S; O3 Y
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K6 b3 T' L. ]" q5 s) M
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
% L4 X1 G8 o. b/ o6 N8 t1 W# J; ` = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
! z5 ?' p& j! Y, j M4 J2 M5 T fby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0% k- R7 [; `9 u. A4 e
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)+ N T( e- C: |( |" J$ Y4 [
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)) @% V$ p% P3 s- R8 e
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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) G- e) T/ N7 ZConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1./ q0 e# c0 H* V9 a/ [
' ^' ^$ l; b3 o! a[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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