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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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Proof: $ }; x8 }" g9 F% O8 |3 N* z. j
Let n >1 be an integer
+ b- v, ?5 z" L- T" ^" I6 g: LBasis: (n=2)3 W+ S* n' y9 w+ ]+ ?; c
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3% H8 O& }( K+ m- q2 ]# L4 n2 X7 l
- T, L4 Z+ L- }5 q% \* }8 \Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that# A8 k# G H$ i) A. S! S( i8 T) T. R9 L
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.* ?( n: C& y% X; b% s& g
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3 ]" z& U' m8 _5 X
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
! u; Z. D/ H( B |+ Q! ?Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)9 j9 _6 f. z) _. E( G2 s
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K) n8 b$ L7 s% T$ a6 ^2 u. M
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
7 p o7 c. ^% |* `) }/ ]' O = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
1 Q! t3 @ V9 L) Qby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>08 m3 V; i; z: |
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
/ U% \" ?; E7 a# r = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
{4 p) a- O. b) c = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3( Y9 s0 b+ i/ n7 @! _; m
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.6 R, G' \. l4 F2 S
1 o7 E( j2 Z# `2 h4 M/ K) s[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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