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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)! e# l! A1 U4 P9 U
* a' W+ j7 H: [2 V4 G" @Proof:
) m3 Z6 X: T( ?" E& H* QLet n >1 be an integer
% J) X* V' w: i9 ?Basis: (n=2)& D( L4 f5 U6 }& R: Y3 U
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 34 W, U6 Z/ J* n3 q5 O& I
9 g7 @3 u4 R2 [: C$ u0 fInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that. u3 e2 [, l9 C6 j4 ]. Q- ?
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
% E, S- g x+ r8 dsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem/ R% N3 t% o- ?! a A
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
$ V2 j% D* A6 X3 T+ V0 H O0 _ = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
5 ^- c: z: ]) K4 x" j. _9 E = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)# D! @- O; H! h7 J9 K2 P- _* @9 Q
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
7 l' Z( Q7 N! E2 Fby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
: f$ b# u: i1 i2 K4 w. P& wSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
/ I& a! w8 N$ k% {. Z3 M = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
5 Z& M3 L- g4 ~- q# i = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3) |( r7 H+ _6 L5 @) N2 k
: {- Q3 q+ Y1 T, d% T& G1 G
Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.* |# Y# {8 C) y L' d+ A
3 g$ \2 n+ _' }4 ][ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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