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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n); w9 w! f# T- i C4 q" z+ h9 }
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Proof: 2 c x" m; ?+ p
Let n >1 be an integer 0 t8 Z' ^ W$ Y
Basis: (n=2)
' v; r! X: a' A 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3) B6 _+ e: V" {+ A! u
! q; o. |' m. w: ~; G) _- a3 aInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that1 Q, {# P+ c. l: e& ]2 j; F0 l
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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6 y" F0 y, _* B/ `+ J1 n% n& ]Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
5 n- `* {. u+ P2 ^# esince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem4 K1 P' Q+ @ `
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1) x/ g7 P5 J/ \8 r
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K2 P2 N* H. |% J# M
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)4 ~2 d/ g& O, h# y$ u, e* D1 ^
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)- {; U* @+ K+ s: r
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
6 x& m3 H7 ^! J" `+ q8 p6 J3 PSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
1 Y% N+ V. T8 D; [/ K = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)+ c6 a% y) ~8 T0 g% u
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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' c/ A h: Q3 y3 n, X! Q1 JConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.8 g( P* v6 d7 q& Z
- d h: }8 M# N[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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