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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)" X( c- B! w" D* k+ \1 O
, i; d& u+ w" e: qProof:
. f. z* _" @( U0 NLet n >1 be an integer & ]$ A5 S6 f s! L3 i$ h. w" U: I. B
Basis: (n=2)7 I4 i8 H8 l( G% c1 d* b
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 39 L5 p/ ^1 Y& E, {& s! W
6 |$ Y% K4 W2 V1 {. r3 ?" B
Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
- k* P" d$ y" H: P/ ` K^3 – K can by divided by 3.' p( b, }8 \8 C% y U
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3. l5 k% O8 C" Q% y' F/ P
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
B2 b, Y3 _4 H* k5 u% ZThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
4 ~& b* j, |7 ]$ B = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K" H0 k: p/ z: O( r( e. @6 d
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)" w' O! } A- H0 z. |1 A
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)/ X W g4 x2 z. O1 G" f% e
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
& g& o% T l; wSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)0 F7 c1 K+ I9 E
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
$ s' | c5 G4 |2 G0 T! H = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
) n9 B1 p# f/ `$ g4 m# j
( Z" l/ x+ x& x0 g# ?! ]' LConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.5 c, s6 H3 _( G, d! _4 X' k
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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