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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)6 [5 d. }- k8 I5 ]' v, |
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Proof: 8 f, P, B$ ?+ A# M* [2 H1 L2 V
Let n >1 be an integer
) D' ?' P" W0 [0 e2 u) Z9 U; \Basis: (n=2)
7 o, g. {, {" X6 B6 [ 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 38 t0 b# d4 X9 } v. c% n
5 c. f! p6 |8 |: Y7 VInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that- }* ^: V, W: i2 t' o) w
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.; m( u$ I( g( M+ k! F1 l. F! R' D
3 a! O' X% S% Y% v! ?: M7 B8 Q, C. ]Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 30 W8 B, K7 t% l3 ?* g
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem: k$ V9 }' w9 q% b, n
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)/ o& L* H( a3 w3 J- C
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K4 l& K& g. Z; J' }2 {
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
; o' X/ T6 R* n- M. Z+ m- e = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
' E( g# `0 l8 [" kby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0; M) Y+ i/ O. y
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
b: c( a2 B" r( ^* c = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
* [" [1 {1 z2 x8 c, N: T = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
0 S$ n4 c Z) N8 F- w+ C5 _7 k! ]% m
Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.+ P( y$ R2 L3 p5 V, N q. S+ e
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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