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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)) ?+ n6 M. ]0 P3 |
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Proof: 2 V3 c# K5 a! B: n
Let n >1 be an integer
' s+ |8 `3 U! r: kBasis: (n=2)
( S6 q2 r% @8 f" F, q 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 32 v7 W) h4 c1 T! ~
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Induction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that
) ] q, ]7 q; x; m S% y K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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7 Q! {; V: ]' ^3 g' p0 Z8 sNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
) G% @& ~ [" a Nsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem3 A+ B2 {+ M# K+ O# {( K$ M
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
: h, k: n: ~6 l4 t = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K& n7 r' x6 s+ Z% d
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)) w: A7 A. m( G
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
6 F0 J" n: ` r0 E) f {$ eby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
% h! K7 s" W9 o5 e1 hSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)) j4 a1 E: M+ L* M+ a- m8 q8 @9 L
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
1 y3 [2 }0 i: D) h, E7 r4 s& x1 x = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3& A) w. D! b0 h+ J# q" \
/ T. m: s- n8 ] x8 bConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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