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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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Proof:
$ ~( N1 ?7 T; |: H( m+ o) Q/ NLet n >1 be an integer
# r& f. }4 i+ n; |6 A, LBasis: (n=2)
& V7 f' ~% D9 m7 H, C7 ]7 c N 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3( m3 j; q7 R8 U
, S# b2 b" F; f6 d$ @, aInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that6 l* I G' W& z4 ]2 B
K^3 – K can by divided by 3./ p2 | g2 H2 `7 b7 Y7 D! @
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3" v: b( B2 n$ n, } q! x
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem0 X2 J1 V! X7 |7 Q
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)8 J- k; P2 @% c! ?& ^) i
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K2 i# M0 y0 e% J4 H5 i% @% O7 c9 S0 I% i
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
; ?% ^/ }( T; Q' Z% @ = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)5 B: s% _$ }' N0 W% U* z1 p% k
by Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>04 {* S; y) m, H1 C1 P/ N Q, a1 K; I& F
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
1 c7 O% `2 F& d; _! t8 o$ e = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)
- m9 g% `, U7 H. q6 Q7 g# ? = 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 33 y! U$ f( g1 V
) P7 K) F1 |! r$ b2 C+ N- ^+ \ r
Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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0 V* C, ~; Y' G. @, b[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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